**Final Value Theorem**

**08/17/17**

*“How can we convert from the s to time domain without using a Laplace transform?”*

Taking an inverse Laplace transform of a function from the s to time domain is very useful but quite difficult, so is there a way that we can get around it for specific case? Well, after years of hard work, mathematicians have discovered that if you multiply the frequency function by s and take its limit as it approaches zero (lim s–>0 s*f(s)) then it would actually be equal to the value of the time domain function at infinity! The proof is shown in the picture above

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